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NO.1 A client states to his nurse that "I was told by the doctor not to take one of my drugs because
it seems to have caused decreasing blood cells." Based on this information, which drug might the
nurse expect to be discontinued?
A. Garamycin (Gentamicin)
B. Timolol maleate (Blocadren)
C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. Prednisone
Answer: C

NCLEX-RN pdf   
Explanation:
(A) Prednisone is not linked with hematological side effects. (B) Timolol, a -adrenergic blocker is
metabolized by the liver. It has not been linked to blood dyscrasia. (C) Gentamicin is ototoxic and
nephrotoxic. (D) Phenytoin usage has been linked to blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia. The
drug most commonly linked to aplastic anemia is chloramphenicol (Chlormycetin).

NO.2 A male client is experiencing extreme distress. He begins to pace up and down the corridor.
What nursing intervention is appropriate when communicating with the pacing client?
A. Increase the level of his supervision.
B. Walk with him as he paces.
C. Help him to recognize his anxiety.
D. Ask him to sit down. Speak slowly and use short, simple sentences.
Answer: B

NCLEX-RN test   
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should not ask him to sit down. Pacing is the activity he has chosen to deal with his
anxiety. The nurse dealing with this client should speak slowly and with short, simplesentences. (B)
The client may already recognize the anxiety and is attempting to deal with it. (C) Walk with the client
as he paces. This gives support while he uses anxiety-generated energy. (D) Increasing the level of
supervision may be appropriate after he stops pacing. It would minimize self-injury and/or loss of
control.

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Exam Code: NCLEX-RN
Exam Name: National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN)
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Exam Code: NCLEX-PN
Exam Name: National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN)
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Last Update: 2016-07-07

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