INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification exam is designed to show that the successful candidate has the knowledge to identify and explain basic computer components, set up a basic workstation, conduct basic software installation, establish basic network connectivity, identify compatibility issues and identify/prevent basic security risks. Further this exam will assess the candidate’s knowledge in the areas of safety and preventative maintenance of computers. This exam is intended for candidates who are users that are considering a career in IT and later considering the pursuit of a CompTIA A+ or similar certification.
Domain % of Examination
1.0 Software 21%
2.0 Hardware 18%
3.0 Security 21%
4.0 Networking 16%
5.0 Basic IT literacy 24%
Total 100%
(A list of acronyms used in these objectives appears at the end of this document.)
**Note: The bulleted lists below each objective are not exhaustive lists. Even though they are not included in this document, other examples of technologies, processes or tasks pertaining to each objective may also be included on the exam.
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Exam Code:
FC0-U51Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals
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FC0-U51 Exam Cram Total Q&A: 275 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following internal busses are used for expansion
cards?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that
apply.
A. PCI
B. SATA
C. PCI Express
D. ISA
Answer:
A,C,D
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Explanation:
The following internal busses are used for
expansion cards: PCI Express PCI ISA What is PCI Express
(PCIe)? PCI Express
(PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It
is a
new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
It uses two low voltage
differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It
is designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots.
The bus is available in
several different bus widths: x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able
to
transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe hardware will work on
operating systems that support
PCI. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component
Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance, 32-bit or 64-
bit bus designed to
be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the
display
subsystem. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
is an 8-bit expansion bus that
provides an interface from devices on
expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. A later version
of ISA bus
comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. Answer option B is incorrect. SATA is used
for hard disk
drive and CD/DVD drives. What is SATA? The Serial ATA (SATA)
computer bus is a storage-interface
for connecting host bus adapters to mass
storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives.
SATA offers
several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such
as
reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full
duplex, and hot swapping. It
is designed to replace the older ATA (AT
Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices
support hot plugging
and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for
enhanced
performance.
Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_hardware"
NO.2 A customer has come
to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would
you
recommend?
A. A PCMCIA card
B. A PCI Express card
C. Upgrade is
not possible
D. An AGP Card
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the
motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer option D is incorrect. An AGP card
is an older type of video card for PC's.
What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics
Port)? Hide
AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance
graphics and video support.
It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video
performance. AGP provides a
bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second.
Answer options B and A are incorrect.
Both are valid expansion cards for laptops, however
the laptop video card is
not on an expansion slot.
Reference:
http://www.tomshardware.com/forum/84345-33-video-card-laptop
NO.3 Which
of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the
Internet
contents?
A. Content filter control
B. Bandwidth control
C.
Usage management tool
D. Monitoring control
Answer:
A
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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of
parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer
option D is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is
used to track
locations and activities when using the device. Answer option C
is incorrect. Usage management tool
is a type of parental control that allows
parents to enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer option B
is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth
control.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parental_controls
"
NO.4 Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the
quality of picture he is getting
on his monitor. You find that you cannot
adjust the refresh rate or the resolution. What is the most
likely
cause?
A. The video card is not recognized by Windows.
B. The monitor is
not compatible with the video card.
C. The video card has failed.
D. The
video card does not have enough video RAM.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
When
Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified
default
settings for refresh rate, resolution, etc.
Answer option B is
incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is
compatible.
Answer option C is incorrect. If the video card had failed, there
would have been no picture
at all on the monitor screen.
Answer option D
is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent
certain
graphics from being displayed.
Reference:
http://www.technibble.com/troubleshooting-video-cards-problems-and-solutions/
NO.5
Which of the following processor states does not save power?
A. C2
B.
C1
C. C3
D. C0
Answer: D
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Explanation:
The C0 processor state does not save power. It
is an operational state.
Answer option B is incorrect. The C1 state is a
powered down state, but the processor
takes action immediately on request.
The C1 state uses less power than C0 state.
Answer option A is incorrect. The
C2 state is also known as Stop-Clock. It uses less power
than C1 state. In
this state, the processor takes a little longer time than C1 state to come
in
action on the request of applications.
Answer option C is incorrect.
The C3 state is also known as the sleep mode. In this state,
the processor
cache is flushed. In this state, the processor takes a few seconds to
be
available for action.
NO.6 Which of the following are used by
FireWire 800 devices?
A. 6-pin connectors
B. 10-pin connectors
C. 9-pin
connectors
D. 4-pin connectors
Answer:
C
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Explanation:
FireWire 800 devices use 9-pin connectors
at both ends of the cable. FireWire 400 devices can also be
connected to the
FireWire 800 ports and vice versa by using an appropriate adapter cable. What
are
FireWire ports? Hide FireWire ports are found on high-end computers and
many new media centers.
They are also called IEEE 1394 ports. FireWire ports
transfer data at a rate of 400 Mbps or 800 Mbps.
They are used primarily for
video transfer from digital movie cameras. Answer options D and A
are
incorrect. FireWire 400 devices use 4-pin or 6-pin
connectors.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FireWire "
NO.7
Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor?
A.
800x600-pixels
B. 1024x768-pixels
C. 320x200-pixels
D.
640x480-pixels
Answer:
D
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Explanation:
Video Graphic Array (VGA) monitors have a
default resolution of 640x480-pixels.
This is known as standard VGA
resolution. Although computers typically use this resolution by
default, you
can get better resolution using a specifically designed video driver for the
installed
adapter. Answer options A, C, and B are incorrect. Super VGA
monitors have a default resolution of
800x600- pixels. A VGA or SVGA
connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a
PC used
for connecting monitors.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 21
Multimedia"
NO.8 Which of the following programs can collect various
types of personal information, such as
Internet surfing habits, and Web sites
that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D.
Worm
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Spyware is a program that takes partial control
over a user's computer without user's permission.
Spyware programs can
collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing
habits,
and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also
interfere with the control of a
user's computer, such as installing
additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing
Web sites
blindly, etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A honeypot is a term in computer
terminology
used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner
counteract attempts at unauthorized
use of information systems. Generally it
consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears
to be part of a
network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to
contain
information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option A is
incorrect. The term malware
refers to malicious software, which is a broad
class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware
is designed to
infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option
D is
incorrect. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and
security holes to replicate
itself from one computer to another. It usually
performs malicious actions, such as using the
resources of computers as well
as shutting down computers.
Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"
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